ERRORS in the King James Bible???

Errors in the King James Bible????

by Bob & Suzanne Hamrick


NOTE: In obedience to His commands concerning His Name as recorded for us in the Hebrew Tanakh (what most Christians call the “Old Testament”), we use the Creator’s self-given Hebrew Name, hwhy / YHVH, (which we pronounce Ye-hu’-ah) and the original Hebrew name given by the angel Gabriel to be the Messiah’s name, [wvy/ Yeshua, (pronounced Ye-shu’-a) which means “he will save” (Strong’s H3442), exactly as Archangel Gabriel directed in Matthew 1:21. We also use God, Lord, El or Elohim (capitalized) as titles for our Father YHVH as appropriate, but not instead of His Name. Finally, we refer to the “New Testament” as the Renewed Covenant Scriptures. Details on request.

We have been aware of the following errors (and more) for several years, but have recently come under fire personally for daring to assert that the King James Bible (and all similar) are not perfect. This article is intended to silence those (no doubt) well-meaning “defenders of their faith” (whatever it may be) and to help them to extricate themselves from the quagmire of denominational bias and mindless orthodoxy which ensnares them. The following is a partial list of known errors in the KJV:

1. “I am the LORD; that is My name; and My glory will I not share with another, nor My praise with graven images.” Isaiah 42:8

Is it? Is the Creator’s Self-given name really “the LORD”? Or is the King James bible (and all similar) LYING to us about this terribly important issue? In the 1769 King James Version “the LORD” is substituted 5,556 times for YHVH, the actual, Self-given sacred Name of the Creator. HOW is this not a direct violation of the Third Commandment (Exodus 20:7), to not desolate His name? HOW? The actual Hebrew root of the expression translated in the KJV as “take …in vain” is the Hebrew word awv shoa, which is the same word that Jews today use to refer to the Holocaust in Nazi Germany! Here is Strong’s definition (H7723) of “shoa”:

in the sense of desolating; evil (as destructive), literally (ruin) or morally (especially guile); figuratively idolatry (as false, subjectively), uselessness (as deceptive, objectively; also adverbially in vain): – false (-ly), lie, lying, vain, vanity.

So the obvious original intent of our Father in the Third Commandment is for us to avoid using His sacred Name in such a way as to desolate it, that is, to empty it of its true sound, meaning and/or significance. We ask you, what better way is there to accomplish the exact OPPOSITE of what a commandment actually requires, than to MISTRANSLATE the original Hebrew commandment, and to then teach as a commandment of men (Isaiah 29:13; Titus 1:14; Mark 7:7) that “the actual Sacred Name of God is too holy to be pronounced, except by a Levite priest”?

Today, that would be “pronounced by a Talmudic Jewish rabbi in the Holy of Holies in the Temple in Jerusalem, on Yom Kippur, once a year”? Oops! Since there has been no “Holy of Holies” since 68AD when the Romans destroyed it, along with the rest of the Temple, this means that, according to the Talmudic rabbis of today, NO ONE (especially a GENTILE/non-Jew) may pronounce the actual Name of our Father, on pain of being BEHEADED by them, if they ever get the chance. Don’t believe it? READ THE TALMUD!

In fact, in the Psalms alone, King David personally addresses YHVH/hwhy as such 624 times! In fact, in Malachi 3:16 our Father YHVH Elohim promises a special reward for those of us who think upon His (actual) Name and who use it appropriately as we speak with one another! In fact, there is not a single prohibition in the entirety of the Tanakh (Hebrew scriptures) against using the Father’s Self-given Name, YHVH! In fact, our Lord Yeshua used it repeatedly in his public ministry, and this was one of the many reasons that the Jewish “establishment” of his day sought to kill him! (Luke 19:37-40) So we should not be surprised that those of us who seek to obey the Father as Yeshua did should find opposition from both (a) the descendants of those who opposed him at the time (today’s rabbinic/Talmudic “Jews”); and from (b) those who claim to know him today (most “Christians”), but who refuse to walk as he walked. (1 John 2:6)

Every single one of those 5,556 instances of this blasphemous “the LORD” substitution results in the forbidden desolation of His Name and the commission of a commandment-breaking SIN against YHVH whenever a person – ignorantly or knowingly – reads “the LORD” aloud from Scripture or says it instead of His Name, YHVH, pronounced Y’huah [see note at end]. And make no mistake about it, whether one is ignorant of the Law/Torah or not, just as in our civil law which derives from the Bible, “Ignorance of the law is no excuse”, and our violations still incur the penalty! Don’t believe it? Check out Leviticus 5:17:

Now if a person sins and does any of the things which YHVH has commanded not to be done, though he was unaware, still he is guilty and shall bear his punishment.

And, before you say that “God doesn’t care about that!”, consider that He has already told us that He does NOT change (Malachi 3:6). If He said it once, it’s still in effect, and will remain so for all eternity. Depend on it!

As our Lord Yeshua warns his followers in Matthew 7:21,

Those who merely call me Lord shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven,
but only those who do the will of my Father who is in heaven.”

What is “the will of Yeshua’s Father”? Fortunately for us, it has been written down for us, both in the “Old Testament” and in the “New Testament”. And THIS is why it is so important for sincere disciples of Yeshua of Nazareth to KNOW the Law/Torah, and why Satan is so determined that we be kept ignorant of it! Praise YHVH, a sin of ignorance may be atoned for, either by the blood of animals (before Calvary), or by the blood of Yeshua in the Renewed Covenant, but in BOTH cases, repentance is required first, AND having a relationship with the Father through Yeshua. No obedience to ALL of their commandments, no relationship. And no repentance, no forgiveness.

IF we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.” (1 John 1:9) This is a conditional promise.

2. Matthew 28:19

The following is from the 1769 King James Version, but it is common to many contemporary Bible versions.

Mat 28:19 Go youtherefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

This being the case, is it not beyond strange that there is not a single recorded instance of ANY of our Lord’s disciples actually DOING what he supposedly commanded in Matthew 28:19?

Here is a complete list of all “baptisms” as described in the King James Version “New Testament”:

Acts 2:38 Peter, “in the name of Jesus”

Acts 8:16 “name of Jesus”

Acts 10:48 “name of the Lord”

Acts 19:5 “name of the Lord Jesus”

Acts 22:16 “name of the Lord”

Romans 6:3 Paul, “as were baptized into Jesus Christ”

1 Corinthians 1:13 Paul, inferred, “in the name of Christ”

Galatians 3:27 Paul, “as have been baptized into Christ”

Ephesians 4:5 Paul, “Jesus” inferred, “one Lord, one faith, one baptism”

Question: If Matthew 28:19 really was part of “the Great Commission” as uttered by our Lord Yeshua just before his ascension, why is there no record in the Bible of anyone having followed such specific instruction from their Lord and Master to baptize his followers into all three names?


If Matthew 28:19 is legitimate, then the only conclusion with which we are left is that ALL of the Lord Yeshua’s disciples who are recorded as baptizing anyone specifically disobeyed him, and by implication, disobeyed the Father, whose fully-empowered representative (Hebrew: shaliach, one sent) he was and is.

Please note that the pre-Roman Catholic “church father” Eusebius of Cæsaræa, writing prior to the time of the Council of Nicæa (convened by the pagan Roman emperor Constantine in 325 AD), repeatedly quoted Matthew 28:19 above, as “baptizing them in my name”. Did Eusebius just “not get the word”? Was he “out of the loop”? Or was he writing before the pagans injected their trinitarian doctrines into this particular verse of the Renewed Covenant Scriptures (“New Testament”)? It was at the Council of Nicæa that belief in the “deity” of “Jesus Christ” was made mandatory by Constantine, on pain of death. This technique (obey or die) is the same time-honored device used by ALL DESPOTIC SYSTEMS, whether Rome, or the Roman Catholic “church”, or Islam, or North Korea, or whatever, to COMPEL OBEDIENCE. The fact that they MUST RESORT to such devices is PROOF POSITIVE of the ILLEGITIMACY of their “laws.”

Please note that, if Eusebius’ records are correct, then all of the disciples’ actions regarding the proper mode of baptism were not disobedient, but obedient, and the apparent conflict which stems from the King James Version text disappears.

Also, the Shem Tov Hebrew Gospel of Matthew, which may have been transcribed from an original, has it as “baptizing them in my name”.

What conclusion do you draw from this?


3. Deceptive italics

The King James “translators” introduced the technique of italicizing certain words and phrases to indicate that they had been inserted into the Greek texts from which they were working, supposedly to “clarify the intent” of the writers. Bearing in mind that the “translators” were all card-carrying Trinitarians in paid service to a Trinitarian king, we should not be surprised when they “felt free” to slant key verses to support trinitarian dogma, which otherwise would have ZERO such validation.
Also, implied in this italicizing of insertions is the assumption that, if it’s NOT italicized, then it must be original. Not so, as the following examples attest.

4. 1 John 5:7

Often quoted by trinitarians as “proof” of the trinity, the following is from the 1769 King James Version, but has been omitted from most modern versions.

King James Version New International Version New American Standard English Standard Ver.


How strange. It’s almost as though the trinitarians realized that they had been found out, and decided to beat a sloppy retreat from a vulnerable position. We ask you, if a Bible “translator” feels free to simply insert whatever words he or she wants to in order to try to legitimize their UNscriptural doctrinal positions, what are we who are seeking the truth to do, but examine all things carefully, and hold fast to that which is true? (1 Thessalonians 5:21) In fact, our Lord commands us to do just that, and warns of the failure to do so.

Joh 4:21 Yeshua said unto her, “Woman, believe me, the hour comes, when you shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father.

Joh 4:22 “You worship you know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation (“yeshuah”) is of the Jews.

Joh 4:23 “But the hour comes, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeks such to worship Him.

Joh 4:24 God is Spirit: and they that worship Him must worship Him in spirit and in truth. [Is this not a COMMANDMENT? It looks like one to us. – Authors]

5. The two impossible genealogies of Messiah:

Here is the genealogy of our Lord Yeshua Messiah, supposedly through Joseph (Mary’s husband), despite the fact that Joseph’s genealogy has ZERO to do with Messiah’s actual parentage, whose actual Father is YHVH Elohim, as recorded in Matthew 1:

1 The book of the generation (Greek: genesiß genesisorigin) of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham.

2 Abraham1 begat Isaac2 and Isaac begat Jacob3 and Jacob begat Judas4 and his brethren;

3 And Judas begat Phares5 and Zara of Thamar; and Phares begat Esrom6; and Esrom begat Aram7;

4 And Aram begat Aminadab8; and Aminadab begat Naasson9; and Naasson begat Salmon10;

5 And Salmon begat Booz11 of Rachab; and Booz begat Obed12 of Ruth; and Obed begat Jesse13;

6 And Jesse begat David14 the king; [14 generations] and David the king begat Solomon1 of her that had been the wife of Urias;

7 And Solomon begat Roboam2; and Roboam begat Abia3; and Abia begat Asa4;

8 And Asa begat Josaphat5; and Josaphat begat Joram6; and Joram begat Ozias7;

9 And Ozias begat Joatham8; and Joatham begat Achaz9; and Achaz begat Ezekias10;

10 And Ezekias begat Manasses11; and Manasses begat Amon12; and Amon begat Josias13;

11 And Josias begat Jechonias14 [14 generations] and his brethren, about the time they were carried away to Babylon:

12 And after they were brought to Babylon, Jechonias begat Salathiel1; and Salathiel begat Zorobabel2;

13 And Zorobabel begat Abiud3; and Abiud begat Eliakim4; and Eliakim begat Azor5;

14 And Azor begat Sadoc6; and Sadoc begat Achim7; and Achim begat Eliud8;

15 And Eliud begat Eleazar9; and Eleazar begat Matthan10; and Matthan begat Jacob11;

16 And Jacob begat Joseph12 the husband* of Mary, of whom was born Jesus13, [NOT 14 generations] who is called Christ.

17 So all the generations from Abraham to David are fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon are fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ are fourteen generations.

Ummm… No. As recorded in the King James Bible, there are only THIRTEEN generations between the “carrying away into Babylon, until Christ”. So, what has “Christianity” done with this glaring error? Nothing. Zero, zip, nada. Never happened. So they missed somebody. Big deal. As Hillary Clinton screamed while being grilled over her rôle in the Benghazi affair, “What difference does it make?” So what? “So what?”, indeed.

Inasmuch as the entire Gospel of Matthew is supposed to be about establishing the genealogical credentials of Yeshua of Nazareth to actually BE the one prophesied to be the Messiah (i.e., to FULFILL the prophecies), one would think that no stone would be left unturned until the errors were discovered, and rectified. Ummm… No. Never mind that it would be a GLARING BLUNDER of transcription by the King James “translators” to actually publish such a gross error when the very means of discovering the error was built into their “translation” itself! But, there it is.

Praise YHVH, regardless of the “genealogy” of this particular error, there is a simple solution.

In verse 16 of Matthew 1 above, if the “Joseph” referred to was NOT Mary’s husband, but her father (a mere coincidence of names), ALL of the discrepancies vanish, and the genealogy actually is that of our Lord Yeshua back to David, but through his ONLY human parent, Miryam/“Mary”! The number of generations lines up, AND it turns out to be a genealogy, not of Miryam’s husband, but of her, through her father, exactly as we would expect.

Has this ever been preached in any church you have attended? If not, why not?


6. Moses’ Seat?

Throughout his public ministry, Yeshua opposed both the unscriptural teachings of the Pharisees, Sadducees, etc., and the authority which they exercised over the Jews of his day. In fact, it was precisely because of his opposition that they had him killed, as he knew they would. So is it not beyond strange that he would seem to endorse that same bogus authority that he was willing to die to oppose? But this is exactly what appears to be happening in Matthew 23:

Mat 23:1 Then spoke Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples,

Mat 23:2 Saying, “The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat:

Mat 23:3 All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not after their works: for they say, and do not.

[According to this, Yeshua is here commanding the Jews to OBEY the scribes and Pharisees. But he then goes on to list some of the major reasons why they should NOT be obeyed. This should have said, “All therefore whatsoever he (Moses) bids you observe, that observe and do.” And it appears exactly that way in the Shem Tov Hebrew Gospel of Matthew, q.v.]

Mat 23:4 For they bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them on men’s shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their fingers.

Mat 23:5 But all their works they do for to be seen of men: they make broad their phylacteries, and enlarge the borders of their garments,

Mat 23:6 And love the uppermost rooms at feasts, and the chief seats in the synagogues,

Mat 23:7 And greetings in the markets, and to be called of men, “Rabbi, Rabbi.”

Mat 23:8 But be not called Rabbi: for one is your Master, even Christ; and all you are brethren.

Mat 23:9 And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven.

Mat 23:10 Neither be called masters: for one is your Master, even Christ.

Mat 23:11 But he that is greatest among you shall be your servant.

Mat 23:12 And whosoever shall exalt himself shall be abased; and he that shall humble himself shall be exalted.

Mat 23:13 But woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you shut up the kingdom of heaven against men: for you neither go in yourselves, neither do you allow them that would enter to go in.

Mat 23:14 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you devour widows’ houses, and for a pretence make long prayer: therefore you shall receive the greater damnation.

Mat 23:15 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you search sea and land to make one convert, and when he is made, you make him twice more the child of Sheol than yourselves.

Mat 23:16 Woe unto you, you blind guides, who say, “Whosoever shall swear by the temple, it is nothing; but whosoever shall swear by the gold of the temple, he is bound!”

Mat 23:17 You fools and blind: for whether is greater, the gold, or the temple that sanctifies the gold?

Mat 23:18 And, “Whosoever shall swear by the altar, it is nothing; but whosoever swears by the gift that is upon it, he is bound.”

Mat 23:19 You fools and blind: for which is greater, the gift, or the altar that sanctifies the gift?

Mat 23:20 Whoso therefore shall swear by the altar, swears by it, and by all things thereon.

Mat 23:21 And whoso shall swear by the temple, swears by it, and by him that dwells therein.

Mat 23:22 And he that shall swear by heaven, swears by the throne of God, and by him that sits thereon.

Mat 23:23 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of Torah, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought you to have done, and not to leave the other undone.

Mat 23:24 You blind guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel!

Mat 23:25 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you make clean the outside of the cup and of the platter, but within they are full of extortion and excess.

Mat 23:26 You blind Pharisee, cleanse first that which is within the cup and platter, that the outside of them may be clean also.

Mat 23:27 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you are like whitewashed tombs, which indeed appear beautiful outward, but inside are full of dead men’s bones, and of all uncleanness.

Mat 23:28 Even so you also outwardly appear righteous unto men, but within you are full of hypocrisy and iniquity.

Mat 23:29 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! because you build the tombs of the prophets, and garnish the sepulchres of the righteous,

Mat 23:30 And say, “If we had been in the days of our fathers, we would not have been partakers with them in the blood of the prophets.”

Mat 23:31 Wherefore you are witnesses against yourselves, that you are the children of them which killed the prophets.

Mat 23:32 Fill you up then the measure of your fathers.

Mat 23:33 You serpents, you generation of vipers, how can you escape the damnation of Sheol?

Mat 23:34 Wherefore, behold, I send unto you prophets, and wise men, and scribes: and some of them you shall kill and crucify; and some of them shall you scourge in your synagogues, and persecute them from city to city:

Mat 23:35 That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias [father of John the Baptist], whom you slew between the temple and the altar.

Mat 23:36 Verily I say unto you, All these things shall come upon this generation.

Mat 23:37 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you that kills the prophets, and stones them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered your children together, even as a hen gathers her chickens under her wings, but you would not!

Mat 23:38 Behold, your house is left unto you desolate.

Mat 23:39 For I say unto you, you shall not see me henceforth, till you shall say, “Blessed is he that comes in the name of the LORD.” [We believe that Yeshua actually said, “Blessed is he that comes in the name of YHVH”, quoting Psalm 118:26. This would have had the added advantage of intentionally and publicly violating another of the Pharisees’ “commandments of men taught as doctrine” (Mark 7:7), to always use substitutes for the Father’s Name, which substitutes Yeshua opposed, as did his Father as recorded in Isaiah 29:13.]


7. “Swear not at all”? Matthew 5:33-37

This is what the King James Version says that Yeshua taught:

Mat 5:33 Again, you have heard that it has been said by them of old time, “You shall not swear falsely, but shall perform unto the Lord your oaths:”

Mat 5:34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God’s throne:

Mat 5:35 Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King.

Mat 5:36 Neither shalt you swear by your head, because you cannot make one hair white or black.

Mat 5:37 But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these comes of evil.

The problem is that this contradicted by the explicit commandments of his Father, hwhy Elohim! These are found in Leviticus 19:12 and Deuteronomy 23:23, and both prohibit, not swearing, but swearing falsely, or perjury. Again, the Hebrew Gospel of Matthew gets it right, “swear not at all in vain”. Most other modern translations have corrected this error.

8. “He shall be called a Nazarene”? Matthew 2:23

And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene.”

Really? We have searched the Tanakh (“Old Testament”) from one end to the other, and have been unable to find a single prophecy which says that the Messiah will be called a Nazarene. What there IS, is a prophecy that he will be referred to as a Netzer (Strong’s H5342), or Branch (Isaiah 11:1; Jeremiah 23:5, 33:15). This was a reference to his being an offshoot of the House of David. It is an agricultural term, referring to a particular type of sprout from the root of an old olive tree (symbol of Israel), springing up at a distance from the original trunk. Descendants of the House of David were referred to as “Netzerim” (Netzers), and the place where many of them chose to live was the “town of the Netzers”, or Netzerit, or “Nazareth” in English. And THIS is the source of the bogus King James, et al., assertion that “he shall be called a Nazarene”. Close, but no cigar.



9. “The voice of one crying in the wilderness…”? Matthew 3:3

For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.

Again, the rendition of this as it appears in the KJV and most other English language Bibles is due solely to the ignorance of the translators. In the Hebraic mindset, “in the wilderness” is far more than a location. It is a separate and specific allusion, found 157 times in the 1769 King James Bible, always contrasted with the comforts of “civilization”.

To comprehend the intent of the writer of Matthew 3:3, and of Isaiah before him, the comma needs to be placed like this:

For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Isaiah (Isaiah 40:3), saying, “The voice of one crying, ‘In the wilderness, prepare the way of YHVH, make His paths straight.’”

This is a prophecy that the Messiah, the Promised One, the Shaliach (Sent One) of YHVH, the fully empowered agent/ambassador/proxy for his Father, would not be found in the palaces of kings, but “in the wilderness”. This is why the Pharisees sent to inquire of John the Baptist if he was the one prophesied. Please note that this is surely NOT saying that YHVH Himself would be walking “in the wilderness”, but that the Messiah, His Shaliach, His Sent One, or fully-empowered agent, would be.

10. “A camel through the eye of a needle”? . . . Matthew 19:24

And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.

In Matthew 19:24, our Lord Yeshua is apparently comparing the difficulty that a wealthy person usually will have in getting into the Kingdom of God, with the virtual impossibility of forcing a camel through the eye of a needle. Among the many difficulties that this rendition presents, is that it is an absolutely unique figure of speech, unknown anywhere else in the Bible, or in the Hebraic or Greek cultures of Yeshua’s time, or at any other time. Other than its existence here, one is hard-pressed to come up with an explanation for our Lord’s choice of a simile.

The word translated as “camel” in the 1769 King James Version is Strong’s G2574, κάμηλος / kamēlos : “Of Hebrew origin; a “camel”. But the actual Greek word in the King James Version is NOT “kamelos”, but “kamelon”, κάμηλοn / kamēlon , an entirely different Greek word, one not found in Strong’s (!), which means “a heavy rope as used on ships; a hawser”. Returning to the passage, we find that our Lord’s teaching should be read as:

And again I say unto you, It is easier for a rope to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”

11. “UNTIL”????

For all the Prophets and the Law prophesied until John.” Matthew 11:13

Really? So the Prophets and the Law (a.k.a. the “Old Testament”) stopped having anything to say to us since John the Baptizer? Really? What about our Lord Yeshua’s declaration in Matthew 5:18 that “Until heaven and earth pass away, the smallest letter or accent mark shall in no way pass from the Law, until all be fulfilled.”?

Stranger still is the fact that the Shem Tov Hebrew Gospel of Matthew has it as “prophesied about John” instead of “prophesied until John”. And the very next verse further strengthens the case for “about” instead of “until”:

Mat 11:13 For all the prophets and the law prophesied until about John.
Mat 11:14 And if you will receive
it, this (John the Baptist) is Elijah, who was prophesied to come.

So Matthew 11:14 suddenly makes more sense, being a continuation of the thought expressed in the previous verse, which is to establish the true credentials of John, and not as a repudiation of the validity of the Hebrew Torah/Tanakh/”Old Testament” for “Christians”. Sorry, “sloppy agape” believers.


12. “If IT WERE possible”?

Matthew 24:24 (KJV) – “For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall show great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.”

This “it were”, admittedly an INSERTION (being italicized in the 1769 KJV), is a kind of subjunctive clause called an “assumption contrary to fact”. It has the result of reversing the entire meaning of the original, from being a warning that the deceptions will be so convincing that even some of the elect will be deceived, into a post-Apostolic (Calvinist) doctrinal statement that “the elect” CANNOT be deceived. Adding to the confusion is the archaic use of “very” to mean “even the elect”. “Elect”, after all, is an either/or condition. There are no degrees of election.

As a side note, the very process of italicizing some words and phrases which were admittedly inserted by the King James translators is itself a separate kind of deception. Why? Because what is implied in this process is the idea (unstated) that “If it’s not in italics, it wasn’t inserted by us.” Unfortunately for us, such is simply NOT the case, as this article should establish beyond any dispute.

13. “On the first DAY of the Feast of Unleavened Bread”?

On the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread, when they killed the Passover, his disciples said to him, “Where do you want us to go and prepare that you may eat the Passover?” (Matthew 26:17; Mark 14:12; Luke 22:19)

This demonstrates the encyclopedic ignorance of the “translators” of the “New Testament”, and never more apparently than when dealing with issues concerning Biblical Hebrew customs and rituals.

Error #1: The Passover lambs were all killed on the afternoon of the Day of Preparation, which was the day BEFORE the first day of the feast of Unleavened Bread.

Error #2: Yeshua was crucified in the morning, then died on the cross at the SAME TIME that the lambs were being killed, about 3PM on the Day of Preparation. Before that happened, he had spent the prior night being questioned and tortured by Pontius Pilate’s men, which was after the Last Supper with his disciples. This means that, if Yeshua was actually crucified on a Wednesday (as seems probable), he would have shared the Last Supper with his disciples the night before that (Tuesday night), and he would have sent them out to get the lodgings, food, etc., the day before that (Monday), at the latest. Since the ACTUAL “first day” of the Feast of Unleavened Bread did not start until sundown on Wednesday, after Yeshua had been laid in the tomb, it is patently IMPOSSIBLE for his disciples to have ever had the conversation with Yeshua as it is recorded in the King James “Version” “New Testament” in Matthew 26:17; Mark 14:12; and Luke 22:19.

Error #3: This required chronology of events also contradicts the idea that Yeshua ate the Passover meal with his disciples. When the Passover meal was being eaten, Yeshua was already in the tomb!!! Also, the word for the bread which Yeshua and the disciples ate at the Last Supper is the Greek artos/artoς, which simply means regular bread. The Greek word for unleavened bread is azumos/azumoς. If the Last Supper had really been the Passover, there is no way that they would have been eating leavened bread with it!


14. Thou shalt be DUMB and not able to speak…”?

Luk 1:19 And the angel answering said unto him (Zacharias), “I am Gabriel, who stands in the presence of God; and am sent to speak to you, and to show you these glad tidings.

Luk 1:20 And, behold, you shall be dumb, and not able to speak, until the day that these things shall be performed, because you believe not my words, which shall be fulfilled in their season.”

Later on, we see that Zacharias was also deaf, since signs had to be made to him concerning the name that was to be given to his baby:

Luk 1:60 And his mother answered and said, “Not so; but he shall be called John.”

Luk 1:61 And they said unto her, “There is none of thy kindred that is called by this name.”

Luk 1:62 And they made signs to his father, how he would have him called.

Luk 1:63 And he asked for a writing table, and wrote, saying, “His name is John.” And they marvelled all.

Since “dumb” means “not able to speak”, why would an angel of God feel the need to repeat the concept when speaking to an elder in the Temple service? And since what is being described is Zacharias’ communicating abilities, why would the fact of his deafness not be part of the angel’s prophecy at the time that he gave it?

We suggest that the angels’ original instruction should have been rendered as “dumb and deaf” or “not able to speak or hear”, or similar. If this is not a translator’s error, what is it? Did Gabriel blow it? (No pun intended.) We think not.

15. Out of his belly shall flow…”?

Joh 7:38 He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

Ummm . . . No. NOWHERE in the Hebrew Tanakh/“Old Testament” is there such a prophecy, that “out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.” So, YOU have to choose, was it Yeshua Messiah, the Son of God, the Promised One, who was mistaken? Or the paid trinitarian “translators” of the King James and other similar Bibles? Take your time.


16. “Law”, or “Torah”?

Most of the instances of the word “law” in the Renewed Covenant Scriptures (“New Testament”) are the Greek word “nomos”, which does mean “law”. Unfortunately for this practice, however, that same word in the Hebrew Tanakh (“Old Testament”) and in the Hebrew Gospel of Matthew is the Hebrew word “Torah”, which means “teaching” or “instruction”. Once again, we must choose whom we will obey: God or men? Acts 5:29; Romans 6:16.


17. “Hell”?

Hell” is usually thought of as a place of everlasting, conscious, physical torment of “sinners”, both human and angelic. Fortunately for such creatures, this is a purely pagan concept, and one not found in the Bible. In the Bible, except for the Anti-Christ and the False Prophet, who are destroyed at the Lord Yeshua’s return, the fate of all sinners is to be annihilated (destroyed completely) in a Lake of Fire, at the Last Judgment. This happens at the end of the Millennial (1,000-year) Reign of our Lord Yeshua from Jerusalem. The word translated as “hell” in the Hebrew Bible is actually “sheol”, which refers to “the place of the dead”, or “the grave”. It is a place of UNconsciousness, which condition will persist until the dead are either: (a) raised from the dead at the First Resurrection (of the righteous) at our Lord Yeshua’s return, at the END of the seven years of The Tribulation; or (b) at the Second Resurrection (of the unrighteous) at the end of the 1,000-year reign of our Lord Yeshua.

For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing. Ecclesiastes 9:5

These things said he (Yeshua): and after that he saith unto them, “Our friend Lazarus sleepeth; but I go, that I may awake him out of sleep.”
Then said his disciples, “Lord, if he sleep, he shall do well.”
Howbeit Jesus spake of his death: but they thought that he had spoken of taking of rest in sleep. Then said Jesus unto them plainly,Lazarus is dead.” – John 11:11-14


18. “Nation”?

Then said he unto them, “Nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom:” Luke 21:10

The Greek word translated as “nation” is actually “ethnos”, which means “race”. This is a specific prophecy of widespread race wars during the Tribulation and the time leading up to it.


19. “devil”?

In the 1769 King James Version “New Testament”, the word “devil” appears 113 times, but only in 38 of those times is the underlying Greek word diabolos, which is the actual Greek word for “devil”. It is this word which is almost always used to refer to Satan. In all the rest of the 113 times, the underlying word is actually some form of daimonos, the Greek word for “demon”, or another word for an evil spirit. Once again, the King James “translators” expose their ignorance, or whatever it is, in confusing demonic spirits with their master, Satan, thereby ascribing to him a power and a presence which he does not have in reality.


20. “the end of the Law”?

For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believes.” Romans 10:4 -KJV

This is a perfect example of the willful corruption by the “translators” of the clear intent of the authors of the Renewed Covenant Scriptures (“New Testament”) . The word “translated” as “end” in Romans 10:4 is τέλος telos, Strong’s G5056, the primary meaning of which is GOAL , RESULT, or PURPOSE. Consider the breathtaking change in the sense of Romans 10:4 when it is rendered correctly:

For Christ is the PURPOSE of the Law for righteousness to every one that believes.”

This single revelation should put every Truth-loving disciple of Yeshua of Nazareth on permanent, four-alarm alert for such evil throughout the “New Testament”, for, as we have shown herein, there are many other such factual and doctrinal snares, lying in wait for the unwary.

21. “Easter”?

Act 12:4 And when he (Pontius Pilate) had apprehended him (John the Baptizer), he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Easter” is a pagan holiday dedicated to the false goddess Astarte, or Eostre, or “Easter”. But the word translated here by the King James Version translators is the Greek Pascha, which always and everywhere else means “Passover” (Hebrew Pesach). It has NO business being used as the name of a feast day commanded by YHVH Elohim, the Creator God of the Bible.

22. John the Baptist?

Throughout the Renewed Covenant Scriptures, this person is referred to as “John the Baptist”, which is a label for a person belonging to a post-apostolic Prostestant denomination. The sense of the Greek word is actually describing the person by the nature of the characteristic action for which he was known, that of a baptizer, and surely not as a Baptist, which is both chronologically and literally impossible.

23. “thou shalt call his name JESUS?

Well, the letter “J” was not even used anywhere on earth until sometime after 1524, when it was first described in a German treatise. So, whatever the Lord’s actual name was, it surely was NOT “Jesus”. According to a literal rendition of Matthew 1:21, wherein the angel Gabriel dictates that he shall be called ____ BECAUSE “he shall save” his people from their sin. Since these were Jews, a people speaking Hebrew, “He shall save” in Hebrew is “Y’shua” (Strong’s H3442). The Greek language had no “sh” sound, so this got transliterated into “Iesous”, and into the Latin “Iesus” from that, and into “Jesus” in English sometime after the 1600’s. Not before. So, the King James Version’s “Thou shalt call his name Jesus” is in error, and badly so, since “Jesus” means nothing in any language.

24. “I will draw all MEN unto myself”?

Joh 12:30 Jesus answered and said, “This voice has not come for my sake, but for your sakes.

Joh 12:31 “Now judgment is upon this world; now the ruler of this world will be cast out.

Joh 12:32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men JUDGMENT to myself.”

It should be obvious that (a) Yeshua truly was “lifted up from the earth” (whether by crucifixion, or by his ascension to the Father’s side in heaven), BUT equally obvious that (b) he has surely NOT “drawn all men” to himself. In the 1769 KJV, the word “men” is italicized, indicating that it is indeed, an insertion, where there is NO WORD in the Greek. This is just another example of the “translators” inserting their own ideas into Scripture, and leaving precious few hints that such is the case. Yeshua HAS, however, truly drawn all JUDGMENT to himself, in that his sacrifice for the sins of ALL MANKIND is fully adequate for their remission, IF we will accept him as Lord, etc.

25. “And the passover, a feast of the Jews, was nigh.” John 6:4

Was it? WAS “the passover, a feast of the Jews” REALLY “nigh” at this point in Yeshua’s ministry?

This is an obvious insertion by the King James translators. First, it could not possibly have been Passover which was drawing near, for if it had been Passover, Yeshua and all of his disciples would have been in Jerusalem for it, as all males of age were commanded by the Torah to be. This is not a mistake which Iochanan (“John”), himself a devout Jew, could possibly have made.

Second, Iochanan (“John”) was a Jew writing about the Jewish Messiah to an exclusively Jewish audience. Why would he even have thought to insert an explanation to such an audience as to what “passover” was? And the King James “translators” didn’t even capitalize the name, as they did with their equally bogus reference to “Easter” in Acts 12:4.

The following is a condensed version of what is in the “introduction” section of The Chronological Gospels, by Michael Rood, of .

The Gospel narratives clearly show us that Yeshua did not go up to Jerusalem for the “passover” (no capitalization) referred to in the modern versions of John 6:4. Instead of keeping a Feast in Jerusalem, Yeshua assembled thousands of Israelites on a hillside in the Galilee and fed them with leavened barley loaves (John 6:9), which would have been a blatant violation of Torah if this were truly the time of Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Two days later, Yeshua taught another large assembly in the Capernaum synagogue who also did not go up to “passover” in Jerusalem. Instead of delivering a message relevant to Passover on that Sabbath, he taught them about the prophetic significance of the Day of Trumpets (John 6:28-59). 

During the following two weeks, Yeshua began his journey to Jerusalem for the Feast of Tabernacles, which occurs exactly six months before Passover (John 7:2-10). Every Gospel author clearly shows that he never did go up to Jerusalem for the phantom passover indicated in John 6:4. Furthermore, if Passover really did occur in the sixth chapter of John, and if Yeshua went up to the Feast of Tabernacles at the beginning of the seventh chapter of John, what did Yeshua do for the six months leading up to Passover of John 6:4 and for the other six months leading back to Tabernacles in John 7:1? Does it make sense that all four Gospel records are suddenly dead silent for an entire year? NO! The sixth chapter phantom passover is pure theological fiction. – End of comments from Michael Rood.

This was apparently inserted by the translators to try to justify an UN-Biblical 3½-year ministry of Yeshua, to fit the Roman Catholic Church’s twisted theology concerning its own imaginary rôle during the end times.

———— Temporary end of KJV error list. Stay tuned. ————

NOTE: The following is from Epiphanius of Cæsaræa, the 4th Century AD “church father” (of what was to become the Roman Catholic church), concerning the few remaining disciples of Yeshua of Nazareth of his time. Please note the last sentence (emphasis added):

But these sectarians… did not call themselves Christians – but “Nazarenes,” … However they are simply complete Jews. They use not only the New Testament but the Old Testament as well, as the Jews do… They have no different ideas, but confess everything exactly as the Law proclaims it and in the Jewish fashion– except for their belief in Messiah, if you please! For they acknowledge both the resurrection of the dead and the divine creation of all things, and declare that God is one, and that his son is Jesus the Messiah. They are trained to a nicety in Hebrew. For among them the entire Law, the Prophets, and the… Writings… are read in Hebrew, as they surely are by the Jews. They are different from the Jews, and different from Christians, only in the following. They disagree with Jews because they have come to faith in Messiah; but since they are still fettered by the Law — circumcision, the Sabbath, and the rest– they are not in accord with Christians…they are nothing but Jews… They have the Gospel according to Matthew in its entirety in Hebrew. For it is clear that they still preserve this, in the Hebrew alphabet, as it was originally written.” (Epiphanius; Panarion 29)

The above is unsolicited testimony of a sworn enemy of the “Nazarenes”. Epiphanius had ZERO motivation to add anything to their stature with his audience, which was equally hostile to all things Jewish. These things being so, we accept that the Gospel of Matthew was surely originally written in Hebrew, and we suspect, but cannot prove, that the great majority of the rest of the “New Testament” was as well. Whatever originals may have survived are likely locked away in the Vatican’s vaults, secure from the prying eyes of Truth-seekers.

NOTE: Concerning the “true” sound of YHVH, there are many candidates: Yahweh, Jehovah, Yahovah, Yehuah, and more. While we do not make a fellowship issue of it, we do have several reasons for choosing Yehuah.

First, the Hebrew name of the tribe of Judah, Yehudah, is spelled exactly as is the name of the Father, but with a Hebrew letter d/dalet inserted. We reasoned, along with a number of others, that removing the d/dalet sound (which is a consonant) should result in what is left sounding as it should.

Yehudah is spelled, in Hebrew, right to left, Yod Hey Vav Dalet Hey HdwHY. It is pronounced Y’hudah. Removing the d/dalet sound results in Y’huah, or Yehuah or Yahuah.

We pronounce the initial Y sound as the “y” in “young”. In ancient support of this choice, the Jewish/Roman historian Josephus (who may have been an Ebionite convert to faith in Yeshua) referred to the sound of the name YHVH as “the four vowels”. Our choice meets that requirement, having no consonantal sounds in it. Other choices are possible.

We do reject “Yahweh” as being a rabbinic Jewish ploy, offered to unsuspecting Gentiles as the “true” pronunciation of YHVH. Since it is a “sin of sins” for any Jew to pronounce the Name (“HaShem”), themselves, what must it be for one of them to teach it to Gentiles? And so it is in the Talmud: a death sentence for the offending Jew. Really.

More later…………………………..


Bob & Suzanne [NOT a 501(c)3 ]