On the “Pre-existence” of Yeshua

Did Yeshua Personally “Pre-exist” His Conception?

by Bob & Suzanne Hamrick
http://torahkingdomliving.com

In a 13-page article on the true sense of “Word” in John 1, Bible scholar Anthony Buzzard of Atlanta Bible College takes a close look at the language of John 1, and cites opinions of other prominent Christian authors on the same subject. He concludes that:

The considered views of these leading Christian thinkers show that it is sufficient to think of word” as God’s utterance, not as His Son prior to the begetting of the Son in Mary. On this model, the Son is in fact what the word became.[21] The Son does not preexist as Son. The Son is the visible human expression of God’s pre-ordained purpose. There was no Son of God until the Messiah was conceived in history. Before that God had His Design and Plan “with Him,” as the basis of His whole intention for creation and for mankind. On this understanding the Messiah is truly a human being, a status which cannot be claimed for him if he has been alive since before Genesis!”

[21]: Cp Leonhard Goppelt, The Theology of the New Testament, Eerdmans, 1992, Vol. 2, 297: “The logos of the prologue became Jesus; Jesus was the logos become flesh not the logos as such.” This comment of Coppelt was cited by James Dunn with approval in Christology in the Making, SCM Press. 1989, fn. 120, 349.

Original article @ http://focusonthekingdom.org/articles/john1.htm

We find confirmation for this analysis in Psalm 2:7, where YHVH Elohim is speaking of the Messiah to come:“I will surely tell of the decree of YHVH: He said to me, ‘You are My son, today I have begotten you.” “Today I have begotten you” surely speaks of a “begetting” in time, and not “from all eternity past”.

Also, there were eight English language Bibles which preceded the 1611 King James Version, and in none of those was “worde”/“word” in John 1:1-5 capitalized, nor were any of the pronouns referring to “worde”/“word” anything but third person singular IMpersonal (“it”), nor was “worde”/“word” regarded as anything but a reference to the eternal Plan/Purpose of YHVH, as this from the Bishop’s Bible of 1568:

Joh 1:1 In the begynnyng was the worde, & the worde was with God: and that worde was God.

Joh 1:2 The same was in the begynnyng with God.

Joh 1:3 All thynges were made by it: and without it, was made nothyng that was made.

Joh 1:4 In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men,

Joh 1:5 And the lyght shyneth in darkenesse: and the darknesse comprehended it not.

The word translated as “by” in John 1:3 is the Greek dia, which means “through”, not “by”, as in our English word, “diameter”. The sense of this is that, if Yeshua had not been who he was and is, mankind could not have been saved from sin, and the entirety of creation would have been pointless. So, in a very real sense, everything was made “through” him, but surely not “by” him, a concept which is explicitly contradicted by YHVH Elohim Himself in Isaiah 44:24:

Thus says YHVH, your Redeemer, and He that formed you from the womb, I am YHVH Who makes all things; Who stretches forth the heavens alone; Who spreads abroad the earth by Myself; [Isaiah 44:24]

Consider also, that in Luke 1:35 the angel Gabriel, who was obviously speaking as a messenger for YHVH Elohim, tells Mary that “The holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So (for that reason) the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.”

It should be noted that, as opposed to “a” son of God, or “the sons of God”, “the Son of God”, was actually a title which was exclusively reserved in Hebraic thought for the Messiah, the Promised One, according to prophecy. It occurs 38 times in the New Testament, and always refers to the Messiah.

It is also clear from reading the entire New Testament that the Jews of 1st Century AD were expecting the Messiah to come at any moment! Which is why the wise men came to Israel, why Herod killed all the babies of the same age as the Messiah would have been, and why the high priest asked Yeshua point blank if he was claiming to be “the Son of God, the Messiah” (Matthew 26:63).

So Luke 1:35 is properly seen as a specific prophecy to Mary (and us!) that her child was to be the Promised Redeemer, the Messiah, the Christ, the Son of God, His shaliach (fully-empowered proxy) and that, in perfect fulfillment of prophecy, he would be “a prophet like Moses” (Deuteronomy 18:15) and “made like his brothers in every way.” (Hebrews 2:17) Did Moses personally “pre-exist” his own conception? Not according to Scripture. If Yeshua did so personally pre-exist his own conception, would he truly have been “made like his brothers in every way”? Certainly not.

All of these testimonies, and more, absolutely contradict the idea that Yeshua personally “pre-existed” his incarnation in Mary’s womb. If he personally “pre-existed” his incarnation, he would not have been truly human, he could not have truly died for our sins, we would still be dead in them, and the entirety of creation would be rendered pointless!

In other words, if Yeshua personally “pre-existed” his begetting in Miryam’s womb, he was not the Messiah!

In our Lord Yeshua’s Blessed Service,

Bob & Suzanne Hamrick
http://torahkingdomliving.com
ru12@runbox.com